Of Empires and Conquerors

Mmm...Donuts

Trooper
There was Rome, Mongols, The Holy Roman, Spain, Carthaginian, Alexander the Great, Prussian, Byzantine, Napoleon, The British, and a lot of empires that span centuries.
Well, I made this thread on your opinions on how these great empires affected history, say your favorites and such, and what would have happened if these empires never fell.

Well, let me start of by saying that for me, I personally asking you this. What, in your opinion, would have happened if the Napoleon actually won  Waterloo? Invaded England? Destroyed Horatio Nelson's army?
 
"If..." one of the most controversial questions in history. Most scholars reject this question because they think it is pointless and of no value. In most cases, I'm obliged to agree, because ever since I started researching history on the internet, I have come across statements like "if alexnader hadnt dyed hed have conqurd china lol". Some of the brighter specimens have written entire scenarios of what would have happened if a certain event would have or would not have taken place. Some sound rather reasonable, while others are among the weirdest fantasy I have ever read.
However, I don't reject the principle idea of that question. I have observed many times that even serious historians have used it to emphasise the significance of certain events or developments. It is a pretty good way of approaching history if you know what precisely you ask. In my opinion, the most enlightening answer is not given to the question "what would have happened if...", but "what would not have happened if..."
The main reason is that you can build your very own scenario about the former, and nobody can prove you wrong. While it is fun, I admit, it is completely pointless, because you gain nothing from it. The latter question, however, goes to the very core of history.
Allow me to demonstrate with a very spectacular example: "What would not have happened had the battle of Stalingrad not taken place?"
The answer that lies closest to me is: "I would not have been born". My grandfather got wounded during the battle and met my grandmother when she treated him in the hospital back in Germany. There can be thousands of other potential answers for this question, and trying to find them can be very rewarding, and indeed, very enlightening.

Now, since I'm in a writing mood, for some more historical theory.
Most people like to see history as a chain of events. They like to study biographies or single events, battles and wars. The problem with this is that history is not merely a chain of events. It is an ongoing process. Single events or personalities can have a significant impact on the direction this process is going, but the truth is that they cannot be properly understood when taken out of context. This is not exclusively a historical problem: It is a very contemporary one, and if not treated properly, it can have disastrous consequences (9/11).

If an event is properly recorded, the goal of a historian should be to find answers to the questions why it happened, and what the consquences were. In answering these questions, a historian needs to be objective and suspicious. For example, if someone says "9/11 happened because the Arabs hate us", he should again ask "why"- why do they hate us? The next step is finding an answer to this question. A good historian would look at both the American and the Arab point of view and study them extensively and finally try to draw a conclusion.

Things are a bit different if we are confronted with a piece of history of which we know the outcome, but cannot exactly tell what happened. I am personally very interested in the history of ancient Persia. The problem with this is that there are only very few written sources about this particular area of history, and in most cases, these sources were written by outsiders, not by the Persians themselves. What makes it even worse is that the most reliable sources cover only a tiny part of the picture. For example, most Greek soures from the 5th and 4th century BC only mention the Persians when it is relevant to the events in Greece. If a Greek historian actually tries to show a broader picture of the Persian Empire, it almost inevitably becomes unreliable. It goes so far that a certain Greek historian describes a mythical animal with several rows of teeth, a tail with a poisonous sting at the end and much other fancy stuff- in reality, this creature is a tiger.

However, what is known as a fact is that several Iranian empires existed in antiquity, and the downfall of each of these is recorded in astonishing detail. Some single events are also known to varying detail, but for the most part, what exactly happened remains unclear. The only source which can give us some more knowledge is archaeology. Archaeology is a very problematic source because, with the exception of single cases, it gives us results we need to interpret. What could it mean if two coins from the same year showing different kings were found? Does it mean a succession of kings? Does it mean there were two kings at the same time? Or was there a civil war?
In this case, a historian's primary job is to try and do the best possible reconstruction of what happened. When he is done with that, he must try and find out why it happened, and so on.

There is much more I could write at this point, but I'll stop for now. Please excuse the rant, but as I said, I was in writing mood.  :P
 
Mmm...Donuts said:
Well, let me start of by saying that for me, I personally asking you this. What, in your opinion, would have happened if the Napoleon actually won  Waterloo? Invaded England? Destroyed Horatio Nelson's army?

I suggest you read your history books more closely. Horatio Nelson never led an army. He was an admiral, meaning he was in charge of a group of armed sea-going ships called a "Navy".

As for the broader topic, my stance (and one increasingly held by academic historians) is this:
No event of the past is any more or any less significant than any other event.
For example: The murder of Julius Caesar had an obvious affect on the course of western history. It’s fairly easy to trace a huge flood of events which were caused by that murder’s immediate aftermath.

However, just as important to world history is the fact they there was an ant on the third step of the Senate that same day. That ant contributed equally to the state the world was in, and affected the way the other bits of the universe interacted, moved about, and did what they did. If the ant wasn’t on that step, it might have triggered a radically different outcome to world history. American could have ended up being settled by the Dutch or something.

This hastily-constructed example demonstrates that every event of the past, big or small, recorded or ignored, is equally important to the way the world is today. However, you will never find an actually history text which is constructed under that premise.

A historian’s job is to interpret the past and make sense of it in a way which is relevant today. We do not simply tell the events of the past, for such a pure chronicle would include every event that ever occurred, no matter how large or small, so that a colourful sunset in September 1623 or a morning milking cows on a farm near Oxford in 1257 would occupy just as prominent a place as the conversion of Constantine or the Norman invasion of 1066.
Such a text is impossible to even imagine, let alone construct, for reasons that help explain historians’ affection for narrative. When we encounter the past in the form of a chronicle, it becomes much less recognizable to us. We have trouble sorting out why things happened when and how they did, and it becomes hard to evaluate the relative significance of events. Things seem less connected to each other, and it becomes unclear how all this stuff actually relates to us. More important, in a chronicle we easily lose the thread of what was going on at any particular moment. Without some plot to organize the flow of events, everything becomes much harder – even impossible – to understand.

A historian must always be cognisant of the fact that they merely interpret the past, not record it. The difficult epistemological trait of history is that the events of the past can never be studied using the scientific method – there is no way to remove or alter variables in the past to see what the outcome of the “experiment” would be. This doe not make historical knowledge any less reliable than scientific laboratory knowledge; it merely makes historical knowledge different.

So, I challenge the premise of your proposition. And I need a beer.
 
Typo on Horatio, supposed to write navy, my bad  :)

Well anyway, I made this thread not as to challenge history or what not, just friendly speculation and stuff.
Your says are completely reasonable. I just wanted to see what you can imagine in these scenarios.
 
Perun said:
I am personally very interested in the history of ancient Persia.

I think I know why !! Because of Aryans and Karmans !!!
(some say the name Karman is the origine of the name German)
even if they were not Persians exactly, they were very close geographicaly
so somehow you feel them closer to you

Perun said:
It goes so far that a certain Greek historian describes a mythical animal with several rows of teeth, a tail with a poisonous sting at the end and much other fancy stuff- in reality, this creature is a tiger.

Herodote makes me laugh !! it's not disrespect but comparing to Thukydides...
they lived with something like 50 years of difference but they are ages away the one from the other !!

...the era of Empires is not so interesting for me, but certainly I don't like the Mogol Empires
...I think I would like to learn more things about the Central American Empires if  I had to chose
 
____no5 said:
I think I know why !! Because of Aryans and Karmans !!!
(some say the name Karman is the origine of the name German)
even if they were not Persians exactly, they were very close geographicaly
so somehow you feel them closer to you

No.

Herodote makes me laugh !! it's not disrespect but comparing to Thukydides...
they lived with something like 50 years of difference but they are ages away the one from the other !!

I was actually quoting Ctesias of Cnidus ;)
 
____no5 said:
HUGE !!! do we have an entire book of him or just extacts ?

Only fragments, the most important of which in the "Histories" of Diodorus Siculus and Plutarch's biography of Artaxerxes.
 
I like what IronDuke said on every little thing having an impact on history, even a thing so small as an ant. And I like Perun's approach to the question. So, a mix of both of them minus the expertise on history is my stance. Since I am not in a writing mood I'll just say I like the Roman Empire best because it was big, lasted long, produced fantastic art and architecture, and had an awesome language (just to name a few). And where would we be without Rome, I ask you, WHERE? *pant*

:ninja:
 
Me likes the Empires of my dear Mexico although before that they were merely known as the Aztec, Toltec, Olmec and of course Mayan. The Inca's weren't too shabby either and what about those Nasca dudes to the south of the Incas?
 
This thread just made me wonder...

As you know, the mayans discovered the number zero, and had very big discoveries in astronoy, medicine and a lot of issues that I will not type now, because I'm a lazy-ass. 

However, according to the theory of the Bering cross, the Europeans were able to develop technology first, because when they already were a society, the american cultures were just arriving, and seeing that they could settle down and stop being nomads.

But I think, that american cultures could have conquered Europe if they had settled down first.
 
Metal_made said:
But I think, that american cultures could have conquered Europe if they had settled down first.

No, that never would have happened.

The time difference between the population of Europe and the Americas is of marginal importance. By the time the Olmecs had established an urban civilization, Europe was not even in the iron age. The Americans would have had the possibility to catch up rather easily. At around 500 BC, Greece and the Mayas were at a comparable cultural level.

There are several reasons why the Americans did not really develop any further and kept the basics of their civilisation from that point, and why they weren't unhappy about it.

One of the most important reasons is that the Americans never developed metal working. This seems somewhat strange at first, especially because there are huge copper reserves in the Rocky Mountains, huge tin reserves in the Andes, and even some iron here and there. Objectively, these reserves were not more widespread than in Eurasia. Although there were vast tin ressources in Wessex (in Greek and Roman times, Britain was also known as the "tin islands") and smaller reserves scattered all around Europe, critical analysis of early bronze age artifacts has revealed that at the beginning of the Bronze Age, all the tin used to create bronze came from Central Asia. Copper, on the other hand, was and still is endemic in Europe (although there is hardly any copper left, of course). The route from Central Asia to Central Europe is even longer than the route from the Andes to Mesoamerica. However, there is a minor difference. In Eurasia, people had domesticated horses, elephants, camels, dromedaries, buffalos, donkeys and cattle from the beginning on. These animals could pull carts and even carry heavyweight goods on their backs. In the Americas, the only comparable animals are llamas, alpacas and bisons. Llamas and alpacas are easy to domesticate and they can carry trade goods, however only light ones such as cloth or small artifacts. Pulling a wagon full of tin- forget it. Bisons, on the other hand, would be strong enough, but it is impossible to domesticate them for any other purpose other than producing food (i.e. you can make them breed, but you can't make them pull a wagon). So, it was virtually impossible for pre-horse America to transport tin from the Andes to Mesoamerica. The lack of transport animals, by the way, is also the reason why there was no use for the wheel in pre-Columbian America. The Aztecs did know of it, but the only use they had for it was mechanical toys.
Without tin, copper is of little use. I have worked with copper myself, and I can tell you, it takes a ridiculous amount of heat to make copper shapeable, yet it is battered if you drop it two or three times. So, why use copper (which is available in Mexico), which is hard to work with yet largely useless, if you can use stone, which is easier to shape and, literally, hard as a rock?
Iron, on the other hand, is harder (and also available in Mexico), but it really does not have very much long-time useage unless it is made to steel, but that would require other minerals which were unavailable to the Mesoamericans.
So, from the point the Africans and Eurasians developed Bronze working, they had a technological advantage which the Americans would never have been able to catch up on. Even if the Americas would have been populated in 10 000 BC and Europe only in 500 BC, the Europeans would eventually have gained that technological advantage.

The next point is, in my opinion, even more important. There was, simply put, no reason for the Americans to try and conquer Europe. There were not that many people in Mesoamerica, and the place was far from being overpopulated. Even if it would have been overpopulated, the people would not have made a risky journey across the ocean, not knowing if they would ever reach land. Why should they? There was more than enough land just a few miles north! There were only about a million people living in the entire area north of the Rio Grande, so there would have been more than enough room for the Mesoamericans to expand there once their homelands got too crowded. As a matter of fact, even if the Mesoamericans would have known of Europe, they would most probably have expanded to North America. Europe was a crowded place with many tiny pieces of arable land scattered all around, no valuable ressources whatsoever (at least not by 1500), and the Europeans would have defended themselves fiercly- why conquer it? What for? Even at about 2000 BC, the ressources of Europe would never have matched those of North America.

Which brings us to another interesting question: Why then, if Europe is so worthless, did the Europeans become so powerful?
Until ~1300, Europe could care for itself. The agricultural produce was big enough to feed the entire population, which was small enough to be fed by it. Bronze and iron was available, and there was enough trade with the neighbours to cover the need for other ressources.
The first disaster happened in the early 14th century. All of the sudden, there were a huge famines in the years 1316 and 1322, from which, for the first time, the population could not recover. Usually, after such a catastrophe, the people would do extra shifts to make sure enough children were born so the population level from before the disaster would be reached again soon (this is the reason for the baby boomers after WWII). This did not happen after 1322. I don't pretend to know the reason why, but my assumption is that the people had seen it was impossible to feed such a huge population.
The next disaster struck around 1350- the Black Death. 75 million people, according to an estimation I once read, died within only a few years. This was a serious blow for the already cracked population. I dare not imagine how many people would have died had the famines not been. The Black Death was apocalyptic for the contemporaries, and it took until ~1480 for the population to recover from these two disasters.
So, when Columbus discovered America in 1492, and the continents were explored in the following two hundred years, the only reason why there were new settlements at all in the New World was because the Europeans wanted the American ressources. They did not even have the necessary manpower for that, because there were already too few people in Europe, so they needed slaves from America, and, when the Pope banned that, from Africa.
Things only really changed in the 18th century, when England and France were starting to experience overpopulation (mostly England), and settlers were sent to the New World in order to actually cultivate new living space. Before that, people only emigrated because they were Protestants living in a Catholic country/Catholics living in a Protestant country/Sectarians/Adventurers and the likes, but not because they did not have the necessary economic fundaments in their homelands.
As a footnote, it should be said that the reason why America was discovered in the first place, was because the Europeans were looking for new trade routes. Overland trade became increasingly dangerous when the Ottomans and the Christian Europeans decided to be enemies to the bone. Moreover, the overland trade routes from China and India to Europe were simply not profitable anymore, and there was an increasing demand for the luxury goods gained from those places, so new oversea trade routes had to be found that were both faster and free from danger. The Portuguese had already circumnavigated Africa in the early 15th century, but the route was too dangerous. The only other possibility was trying to go to the open sea and see how long it took to get to China. Columbus was NOT trying to prove that the earth was round. That was already common knowledge at that time, and the first globe was already made just before Columbus set out to the sea. To get even further into digressive detail, maps in the Middle Ages were mostly made not as a method of geographic orientation, but as a representation of Gods creation. The world was portrayed in knowingly a distorted schematic way, with the east on top because that was where the sun rose ("East", Latin Orient, hence "orientation"). The world was drawn as the body of Jesus, and on the world maps of those times, you can see Jesus' head on top, the arms on the side and the feet at the bottom, the navel being Jerusalem.
The ancient Greeks had already written several books on the structure of the world, them already considering it obvious that it was round, and these books were copied in the Middle Ages by monks. The notion that the earth was flat was hence only carried by those who were uneducated, i.e. those outside the clerical world.
I know that at one point, the flatness of the world became a part of Catholic dogma, but that was still considered wrong by educated contemporaries- and I am inclined to think that this only happened when the Church actually lost the monopoly on science which it held throughout most of the Middle Ages.
The Church did however have a huge problem with the idea that the Earth revolves around the sun.

Anyway, where was I?
 
My favourite conqueror was Genghis Khan.  Don't ask why, you know why.

I also studied him more than any other ruthless bastard living or dead.
 
Don't get me wrong, I am not a big nationalist, but I am pretty impressed by the courage of:

Michiel Adriaenszoon De Ruyter ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Michiel_de_Ruyter )

He helped / saved my country very well during his life. A good example is the "defense" Battle of Schooneveld

Van_de_Velde%2C_Battle_of_Schooneveld.jpg


The Battles of Schooneveld were two naval battles of the Third Anglo-Dutch War, fought off the coast of the Netherlands on 7 and 14 June 1673 between an allied Anglo-French fleet commanded by Prince Rupert of the Rhine, and the fleet of the United Provinces, commanded by Michiel de Ruyter. The Dutch victories in the two battles, and at the Battle of Texel that followed in August, saved their country from an Anglo-French invasion.

more: --> http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Schooneveld
and: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Texel

Aftermath
By skilful manoeuvre, De Ruyter had fought two engagements against a superior fleet, inflicted such damage against his opponents that they were forced to lift the blockade and retire, and taken care to avoid the decisive battle that the allies were hoping to fight.

After refitting and establishing with great difficulty somewhat more cordial relationships, the allies decided to cruise off the Texel in the hope of drawing De Ruyter out of the Schooneveld and bringing him to action. But the resulting Battle of Texel was a Dutch victory, and England was forced to withdraw from the costly and unproductive war.
 
Good God, Perun, you really are Mr. Know-It-All...  :innocent:

Anyway, I also have some arguments against you, but I need to confirm them in my books, and I need to talk to a friend of mine (who used to be my teacher), in order to retaliate  :P

But I must say I'm impressed with your post, you are a real history lover, and I admire you for that.
 
Any thoughts on Holy Roman Empire? Although the name is a complete misnomer, as tbe Byzantine empire is the real Roman thing and they're German. And I love their Gothic style stuff. Looks all shiny and ominous.

Notable rulers are Charlemagne and Frederick Barbarossa, though I noticed a lot of rifts with the Papal States during the early middle ages.
(Medieval 2 Total War!  :P)

Well anyway, was Prussia ever part of it? Or was it a succesor state? Since Frederick the Great came from Prussia, it can remind me of his HRE like prowess.
 
The Holy Roman Empire... scourge of my history exams :/

The main problem with the HRE is that it is a very, very complicated subject. At first glance, it may seem like a misnomer, but, at least in contemporary eyes, it wasn't.
By Medieval definition, the Roman Empire never fell. It was transformed (translatio imperii- one of the keywords of medieval politics), in several ways. First of all, it changed from a political and geographical entity, which it was during antiquity, in a foremost spiritual, then a political one. Since it got Christianised in the 4th century, the Roman church considered itself to be the main authority, the bishop of Rome -the Pope- being its head.
By common understanding, the rule of the Roman Empire went from the Romans to the Greeks (East Romans) in 476 (the year the last western emperor was removed). The legitimation for this was that the Greeks were at that time still part of the Roman (Catholic) church. The Germanic tribes were, with a few exceptions, all Arianists, i.e. heretics. This changed when the Franks converted to Catholicism. They were favoured and supported by the Roman church in their struggle against their Germanic opponents. Finally, in 800, Charlemange was crowned Emperor of Rome- considered to be in one line with Augustus, Nero, Traian, Constantine et al. The rule of the Roman Empire went from the Greeks to the Franks/Germans, the political body, which was at first still the Frankish Empire, was named the "Roman Empire". Of course, the Byzantines, who considered themselves the legitimate successors to the Roman throne (they still called themselves Rhomaioi), were not happy about that, but practically couldn't do anything against that; and since the great schism of 1056- the sepparation of eastern (Orthodox) and western (Catholic) church, they were heretics in the eyes of the Romans and had nothing to say anyway.
There was only one catch with the Roman Emperor: He had to be declared and crowned by the Pope, who would not go out of Rome for that.
After a few very complicated and quite ugly events, the Frankish/Roman Empire got parted for good in 843 in the treaty of Verdun, into three new states: The Western Frankish Empire, which would become France, the Lotharingian Empire, which got lost along the way, and the Eastern Frankish Empire. The Eastern Frankish Empire soon got taken over by the Saxons. It soon became clear that the King of the Eastern Franks, or, to ease it, "German" Empire were the successors of Charlemagne's Roman Empire. During the following centuries, the title of Roman Emperor was given exclusively to the "German" Kings, and the "German" Empire was now labelled the "Roman" one- especially because (northern) Italy, and Rome itself was (nominally) part of it (the suffix "Holy" was added in the 12th century). However, only those Kings who really cared for being an Emperor (most did) became Emperors, because they had to undertake a long and dangerous journey to Rome for that (the Alps and northern Italy, despite being part of the Empire, were not exactly under control of the King). So, every Roman Emperor had to be a German King, but not every German King was an Emperor- especially because the Pope could simply refuse crowning him.
So far, so good. Now you mentioned struggles between the Roman Emperor and the Pope. The most famous of these is the Investiture Controversy. This is one of the most complicated and, forgive me, shittiest stories in the entire Middle Ages. I will try to simplify it as far as possible.
There was no official consensus between Pope and Emperor about who was allowed to put bishops into their position. Basically, this was the privilege of the Pope, but there was a catch: The church was considered to be the property of the Emperor. In 1075, the Pope, Gregory VII, issued the Dictatus Papae in which he simply granted himself all those rights. The Emperor, Henry IV, responded by excommunicating the Pope from the church- the Pope did the same to Henry. Henry's biggest mistake was that he believed he had all the Empire's princes on his side- but they simply told him that if he would not have been readmitted to the church in one year, they would elect a new king (in the Roman/German Empire, kings were indeed elected by the princes). Henry got that settled by going to Canossa (one of the most famous acts in all of German history) and begging the Pope to readmit him, which he did; but as soon as Henry got trouble in Germany, the Pope supported his enemies.
From there on, things got really ugly. In the end, the German King was powerless by definition, the princes had all the power and the church was sepparated from the Empire. To compensate for that and to re-unify Christianity, the Pope, now Urban II, initiated the Crusades in 1096. There is a lot more to that, but these are the most elemental basics.
The German/Roman King nevertheless remained powerful during the next two centuries, but by the mid 13th century, he became a mere puppet- the institution of the Holy Roman Emperor (at about that time, a law was passed that the German/Roman King was also Roman Emperor by definition) became a bit more than a joke.
However, by common definition, the Roman Empire remained until Napoleon officially dissolved it in 1806.

Now, you asked about Prussia. Was Prussia a part of the Holy Roman Empire? Yes and no. We know Prussia as the empire of Frederick the Great, with its capital in Berlin and all that jazz. It gets a bit complicated here as well. In the 18th century the Markgraf (Count, if you will) of Brandenburg, the territory in which Berlin was/is situated, was crowned the King of Prussia in Königsberg (modern day Kaliningrad)- Prussia was the country nowadays known as "East Prussia". The title of the Prussian King had nothing to do with Brandenburg, basically, and this was simply a personal union of Markgraf of Brandenburg and King of Prussia- but the title of the Prussian King was much more important, and eventually, the entire territory became known as the "Prussian" Empire, and those coming from the territories that used to be part of the Prussian empire (mostly Brandenburgians and Berliners, though), including me, still refer themselves as Prussians to this day.
Now, Brandenburg was part of the Holy Roman Empire, and the Markgraf of Brandenburg was, at the same time, a Kurfürst- i.e. one of the seven princes who were allowed to/had to elect the Emperor. BUT, Prussia (East Prussia) was not part of the Holy Roman Empire. So, you could say the Markgraf of Brandenburg was a prince of the Holy Roman Empire, but the King of Prussia wasn't.
Frederick the Great's Prussia, thus, was, partly, part of the HRE, but at that time, the Empire was merely a paper tiger without any actual power. The zenith of Prussian power, however, came long after the Roman Empire was destroyed. Prussia, simplified, became the master of the new German Empire in 1871.

Just one further thing: I talked a lot about Germans up there. In the Middle Ages, that didn't play a role. The Roman Empire became known as the "Holy Roman Empire of German Nation", but "German" in this case is to be understood as the Genitive: It was the Roman Empire, and it was in possession of the Germans (Teutons), whoever they may be: A real definition of "German" was not made until 1817. It is simply wrong to look for something like a national German history in the history of the Holy Roman Empire, as it did not exist.
 
Impressive post Perun! Thanks for these stuff, I've been real interested in the history of the HRE for a while.
I could have imagined the empire's subjects to be real enthusiastic to serving the Kaiser.

I also saw that they had some problem with Milan. Was it a political problem or something to do with the Church?
 
Mmm...Donuts said:
I could have imagined the empire's subjects to be real enthusiastic to serving the Kaiser.

If the emperor was a strong one, like Barbarossa, the subjects were more than enthusiastic. Unfortunately, his dynasty was the last one to have a couple of really strong emperors. ;)

I also saw that they had some problem with Milan. Was it a political problem or something to do with the Church?

That was one of the key triggers of the Investiture Controversy. The King placed a new bishop there without consulting the Pope.
Apart from that, Milan was simply a notorious troublemaker.
 
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